Daniel 9:27 question

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Daniel 9:27 question

Postby Mr Dan on Thu Dec 21, 2006 5:55 pm

Ive been a visitor of this sight for awhile now and agree that events appear to be leading to the soon fullfillment of prophecy. however in my gut i cant shake the feeling there is something still that we are overlooking. Reading todays commentary (12/21) something in dan 9:27 jumped out at me that Ive failed to recognize all the other times Ive read this passage..

And he will make a firm covenant with the many for one week, but in the middle of the week he will put a stop to sacrifice and grain offering; and on the wing of abominations will come one who makes desolate, even until a complete destruction, one that is decreed, is poured out on the one who makes desolate

It seems to be assumed that the passage is talking about the coming world leader making and breaking the covenant with Gods people but its the break in this passage that struck me as odd.

and on the wing of abominations will come one who makes desolate, even until a complete destruction,

How sure are we that the one who makes and breaks this agreement is the same as the one who comes on the wings of abominations to make desolate are the same individual and not two seperate entities?

Im curious to know how this passage breaks down in the original Hebrew and since I dont how to read hebrew ,greek, or aramaic figured Id "Ask Holly" :lol:

Thank you
Mr Dan
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Postby Holly on Sat Dec 23, 2006 12:44 am

Mr Dan,

Thanks for your question! This is one for the "Ask Herb" section, as it relates to Bible prophecy. I will move it to his forum.
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Postby Herb on Sat Dec 23, 2006 9:36 am

Mr Dan

To have the verse broken down in the original language would require an expert in the field. And even experts disagree -- depending on their belief and system of interpretation. For example, a Jewish scholar may likely read the passage different from a Christian scholar. And, an unbelieving, secular scholar may read it different again. My point is, since what we have in our many translations is the work of many language experts, I feel fairly safe with what we already have.

As far as the break in the passage goes, this style of writing is common in prophetic Scritpure. What we're seeing is like when a record suddenly skips backward and repeats what's been already said. The difference is, in prophecy the repeat includeds new information. Another reason that we know this break is referring to the same individual is from the related prophecies -- such as Matt. 24:14 and 1 John 2:18, and others in Daniel and Revelation.

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Postby Mr Dan on Sat Dec 23, 2006 11:37 am

Thank you for the quick response. Your absolutely correct about differing interpretations based upon ones preassumed theological beliefs. Having a great uncle who was an expert in these matters and being an avid listener/ learner I can testify to this from a personal experience.
After posing the question, in the wrong forum (my apologies), I went through some refrences in scripture and I agree its safe to say that passage is refering to the same individual based upon previous precedent. I find nothing concrete to indicate that the break refers to one or two seperate individuals so I must abide with the model of prophetic writing thats pre established and assume its viewing the same individual first by addressing him then by defining him.

Thanks for answering the question and causing me to stop and study it further.
Mr Dan
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