John 2:24-25 KLV
But Jesus did not commit himself unto them, because he knew all men, And needed not that any should testify of man: for he knew what was in man.
I know of others:
Luke 5:22, "When Jesus perceived their thoughts . . ."
Luke 9:27, "Jesus, perceiving the thought of their heart . . ."
Mark 2:8, "when Jesus perceived in his spirit that they so reasoned within themselves . . ."
Could Jesus "read minds"?
But to me the question is not could he, because it sure seems the Bible says Jesus could know people's thoughts, but rather, could he at will? Did Jesus have the innate ability to "read minds", to use as he wished?
I'd have to answer that with, yes, he did, and he could, but he didn't. He emptied himself and took upon himself the form of a servant. Not the one that makes the decisions, the one who does as told.
I've wondered over this in the past.
Today I came across:
Matthew 11:25-27 KJV
At that time Jesus answered and said, I thank thee, O Father, Lord of heaven and earth, because thou hast hid these things from the wise and prudent, and hast revealed them unto babes. Even so, Father: for so it seemed good in thy sight. All things are delivered unto me of my Father: and no man knoweth the Son, but the Father; neither knoweth any man the Father, save the Son, and he to whomsoever the Son will reveal him.
Some things occurred to me:
What Jesus had came from his Father.
No one knows the Father except those to whom Jesus reveals the Father.
No one knows the Son except the Father.
If Jesus reveals the Father, yet no one except the Father knows the Son, then Jesus is not revealing himself to any degree. Simply not at all.
I know that Jesus said he only spoke what he heard the Father speak. He only did the works that the Father was doing.
So I'm thinking now that actually nothing at all that Jesus did was on his own, out of his own ability or discretion. Otherwise, we'd be getting a glimple into Jesus himself, wouldn't we? If he were expressing himself in these ways?
I think when Jesus told Andrew, I think, "If you have seen me, you have seen the Father", this means that they didn't actually see the Son. They saw the Father, because that was all the Son showed.
John saw the Son in his revelation, on the other hand.
The more I think about this . . . People complain that "the God of the Old Testament" was all "fire and brimstone", while Jesus was all love and forgiveness.
But if it's Jesus who is judging mankind, and, well, YHWH is going to stand on the Mount of Olives, it is YHWH whom Job will see with his eyes, this is Jesus. I think people have their erroneous impressions backwards. I mean say, their error that God is different in the OT from the Gospels, in that God is judgmental, and Jesus is forgiving, while we know that God is One, and there is no conflict, even so, in that line of thinking, it is the Son who is judging, and the Father who forgives.
Your thougths on any of this?
Much love!
Mark